Solved Question No 31-51 IPO Exam 2012 paper III

 Solved QuestionNo 31-51 IPO Exam 2012 paper III

31     Power of  declaring  castes/tribes as scheduled  caste/scheduled  tribe  is vested with A  Parliament B  President  C  Chairman SC/ST  Commission  D  Speaker  Loksabha Answer  A  Parliament

32     The  borrowing  by  the  government  of  India  from consolidated  fund  of  India  has been  provided  in  A  Art 289  B Art 290 C Art 291 D  Art 292 Answer   D  Art 292

33     The  fourth  schedule  of  the  constitution  contains  A List of  Foreign  treaties B  List of states  and union territories C  Allocation  of  seats to  states and  union  territories  in  the  council  states D  None of  these    Answer C  Allocation  of  seats to  states and  union  territories  in  the  council  states

35    The provisions relating  to  the  disqualification  on   grounds  of  defection  of  members of  legislature is  contained  in A  Tenth  schedule of  constitution B  Twelfth  schedule of  constitution C  Ninth  schedule of  constitution D  None of  above Answer A  Tenth  schedule of  constitution

34    National  Emergency  can  be  declared  by  the  president  A  On his  own  B  On  the  recommendation of  the  prime  minister  C   on  the  recommendation of  the  council  ministers D On  the  recommendation  of  the parliament Answer C   on  the  recommendation of  the  council  ministers

36    Who  summons  the meetings of  the parliament A  President  B  Speaker of Lok  Sabha C  Minister of Parliamentary  Affairs D Prime Minister Answer A  President

37    The maximum no of nominated  members  in  Rajya  sabha  at any  given  time can  not exceed A   2  B  10  C  12  D 8 Answer C 12

38     An order of  court directing  a  public  authority  to establish his  entitlement  to hold  the office  is  called  A  Habeas Corpus   B  Writ of Mandamus  C  Writ of  Quo warrants   D  Writ of  Certiorari C  Writ of  Quo warrants

39    In  How many  categories the fundamental duties as appearing  in article 51 A have been presented A  8 B 9    C 10    D 11 Answer    C 11

40    The  election  of  Vice President  can  be  challenged  before     A Supreme  Court     B  President     C Election  Commission     D  Both  Supreme  court and  High  Court Answer  Supreme Court

41     The consumer protection act  1986  came to  effect  in  its  entirety  on  A  15 .04.1986 B  01.07.1986 C 15.04.1987 D 15.07.1987 Answer C 15.04.1987

42    The  word  consumer  has been  defined  in  the  C P  Act in  (A)    Section  2(1)  (B)  (I) (B)    Section  2(1) (c) (C)    Section  2 (1) (d) (D)    None of  these  Answer  C Section  2 (1) (d)

43    The  word  ‘Services’  has  been  defined  in  the  C  P  Act in    A  section  2 (1)  (c)    B  Section  2 (1)   (o)   C  Section  2 (1)  (g)  D  None  of  these Answer  B  Section  2 (1)   (o)

44    The  word  ‘Deficiency  has been  defined   in  the  C  P  Act in  A  Section  2  (1)  (g)    B  Section  2  (1)  (o)  C  Section  2 (1)  (i)  D None of  these Answer A  Section  2  (1)  (g)

45    In  which  of  the  following  case  it  was  held  the   insurance  company  is  not a  consumer  and  hence  consumer  complaint  by it  is not  maintainable  A  Savani  Road  Lines  V  Sundram  Textiles  LTD B  Luknow  Development  Authority  V  M K  Gupta C  United  India  Insurance V  Shiv  Prasad D  Allahabad  Bank V Muthoot  Finance  LTD Answer A  Savani  Road  Lines  V  Sundram  Textiles  LTD

46    The consumer  National  Commission is  a court of         A  Original  Jurisdiction         B  Appellate  Jurisdiction        C  Only  (B)        D  Both (A)  &  B  Answer  D  Both (A)  &  B

47    The  limitation  for  filling  a  revision  before  consumer National  Commission  shall  be the same  as  that  of  the  A  30 days    B  60  days  C 90  Days   D  2  years Answer  A 30 Days

48    Working  days  and  office  hours  of   the  consumer  National  Commission  shall  be the  same  as  that  of  the A  Supreme  Court  B  Central   Government C  Delhi  High  Court D  None  of these Answer  B  Central Government

49    For the  purpose  of consumer  protection  act  the  word ‘goods  shall  have the meaning A as defined  in  the  Central  Clauses Act B  As Defined  in  the  agreement  between  parties C  As defined  in  the  Sale   of  goods  Act D  None of these  Answer  C As defined in the Sale of goods Act

50     The  Age  of  Superannuation  for  every  member  of the district forum shall  be     A  60  years  B 65 years   C 62  years  D 58 years Answer B 65 Years

Solved question paper IPO Exam 2012 Paper III QNO 1 to 30

Solved question paper IPO Exam 2012 Paper III QNO 1 to 30

Q1 Which of  the following describe  about the  Person  voluntarily  acquiring  citizenship  of a   foreign  state  shall  not  to be citizen  of  India a.  Article  6   B  Article  7  C   Aerticle  8   D   Article  9 Answer  D  Article  9

Q2  In  which case  it  was  held  by  the  Supreme  Court  that   ‘  Right to Life  does not  include  right  to die  “ A  In  re  Golaknath  Case   B  R  Rathiram  V  UOI  B  Gian  Kaur V  State  of  Punjab D  In  Re Keshwanda Bharti Answer B  Gian  Kaur V  State  of  Punjab

Q3 In  Which  case  it was  held by  the  Supreme  court  that  “  Harmony  and balance in  fundamental  rights  and  directive  principles  is  the basic feature  of  Indian  Constitution A  In  Re :  Keshwananda Bharti  B  In  Re : Golaknath  Case  C.  In  Re  Minerva Mills D  Waman  Rao  V  UOI Answer  A  In  Re :  Keshwananda Bharti

Q4   Which  of  the  following  case the issue  of  nationalization  of banks  was examined  by  the  Supreme Court ? A  Waman  Rao V UOI   B R  C  Kapoor V  UOI   C  R   K  Garg V  UOI  D Maneka  Gandhi V UOI

Q5 Fundamental  Rights  are  Judicially  enforceable  under  : A Article  32 B  Article  226 C  Both A & B   D  Article 215 Answer  C  Both A & B

Q6 The appointment of district Judges has been provided in Article  235  B  Article  233 C  Article  229   D  None Answer  Article  233

Q7  Which  provision  of  constitution  says  that  law declared by  supreme  court  shall  be  binding on all  courts A  Article  145 B  Article   144   C  Article  143  D  Article  141 Answer  Article 141

Q8  The original  Jurisdiction  of  the  Supreme  court  has  been  provided in  ? A Article  136 B  Article 142 C  Article  133 D  Article  131 Answer Article 131

Q9 Fundamental  Duties  were  inserted in  the constitution by  A  Forty  Second  amendment  B Forty  Fourth  amendment  C  Forty  Sixth  Amendment D  None Answer A Forty  Second  Amendment

Q 10 Under  the constitution  who  is  the chairman  of the  council  of  states  ? A  President of  India   B  Vice  President  of  India  C  Prime  Minister of  India  D  Chief Justice of India  Answer  B Vice President

Q11   Right to  Property  under  Art 300 was inserted  by  A  Forty  fourth  amendment  B Forty  Sixth  amendment C  Forty  Second  Amendment D  None  of these Answer  A Forty  Fourth  amendment

Q12  The  administration  of  Union  territories  is vested  with  president  of  India  Under A  Art  235  B  Art  239 C Art 245  AD  Art 255 Answer  B Art 239

Q13 Functions  of  Public  service   commissions  are provided in  A  Under art  300 of  Constitution B  Under  Art  319 of  Constitution C  Under  Art  320 of Constitution D  Under  art  325 of  Constitution Answer    C  Under  Art  320 of Constitution

Q14  High  courts  to be  courts  of  Record as  per  A  Art  205 of  constitution  B Art  215  of  Constitution  C  Art  220 of  Constitution D Art  225 of  Constitution Answer  B  Art  215  of Constitution

Q15  Power of  President  to  grant  pardons  remit or  commute  sentences etc  is  given in  A  Art  71  B  Art  72 C  Art  77 D  Art 79 Answer  B Art  72

16    Indian  Constitution  reserves the  residuary  powers to  A  Union  B  State  C  Gram Panchayat  D  President Answer A Union

17 How many  types  of  emergency  has been  envisaged  in   Indian  Constitution A  Three   B  Four C  Five  D  Eight  Answer  A  Three

18  Under  which article  of  Indian  constitution  Parliament  can legislate on  any  subject  in the state list  A Article  229 B  Article  239 C  Article  249 D  Article  259 Answer C  Article 249

19    The  members  of  Union  Public  service  commission  are  appointed by  A  The  Chairman   UPSC   B  The  President   C  The  Prime  Minister  D  The  ministry of Personnel Answer B  The  President

20    Art  16 (4)  is not in  the nature  of exception  to Art  16 (1) was observed  by  the Supreme court  in  A  Waman  Rao  V  UOI B  Indira  Sawhney  V  UOI  C  W A Baid  V UOI D  Madhu  Limye V State of Maharashtra Answer B  Indira  Sawhney  V  UOI

21     Fisheries is  included  in  which  list A  Union  List   B  Concurrent List  C  State  List  D Local  List  Answer A Union List

22    Registration  of  Births  and  deaths  is  included  in which  list ?  A  Union  List  B  Concurrent  List  C  State  List  D  Local  List

23    Members of  Anglo Indian  Community are  nominated  to  the  House  of  people under  A  Article 330 B  Article  331 C  Article  D Article 333 Answer  D Article 333

24    Which  article has abolished “ Untouchability “ ? A   14   B  16 C  17  D  18 Answer Article 17

25    Which  article  provides   for  creation of  “Uniform  Civil  Code  “ A  40  B  42 C  44 D 46 Answer C  Article  44

26    Which   of  the  following  is not constitutional  Post  27      A  Attorney  General  B  Chairman  UPSC  C  Solicitor  General  D  Advocate  General B  Chairman  UPSC

28     If  a  directive principles of state  policy  is  infringed  A  There  is  no  remedy  by  judicial proceedings  B  There is  a  remady  in  the  court  C  There is  a remady  in  the  lok  Adalat D  None of  these Answer  There  is  no  remedy  by  judicial proceedings

29    Society  for  un aided schools  of  Rajasthan  V  Union of India  & Ors  is  a recent  case  dealing  with   A  Constitutional  validity  of  state  Examination  Boards B  Constitutional  Validity   of  enforcement  of  EWS  seat  reservation  in  private  schools  C  Right of  religious minorities  to run  educational  instituties  D  Reservation  in  the  appointment  of School teachers  Answer B  Constitutional  Validity   of  enforcement  of  EWS  seat  reservation  in  private  schools

30    The  framers   of the constitution  borrowed  the concept  of  Directive principles  from  A  Constitution of  USA B  Constitution of  Swizerland C  Constitution  of Germany  D  Constitution of Ireland Answer  D  Constitution of  Ireland

30  The  power of  the  president  of  India  to issue  an   Ordinance  is  A  Executive  Power  B  Legislative  Power  C  Transitional  Power  D  Emergency Power Answer  Legislative  Power

Prepared by  S Jayachandran  ,  System  Administrator , Mavelikara  Postal  Division 690101 – 9961464279 Please visit  http://nfpemavelikaradivision.blogspot.com All readers are  advised to  check  if any  doubts  in  the  said  solved questions  with  officially released  answer keys    by  department of  Posts

How to deactivate BSNL Caller tune

How to deactivate BSNL Caller tune ? Is BSNL Caller tune worth for the money ?

BSNL Caller tune doesnot seems to be good. One main reason is the cost is high, Rs 20 + Rs 12 every month.

Once you opt for the BSNL caller tune, when the caller calls, most of the time the caller will hear advertisement for their caller tune service. Before playing the song it says, "intha paattu ungalaukku pidichirintha udane star keyya press pannunga, copy pannunga" which means, if you like this song, press star immediately to copy this song to set it as your caller tune.

Why should we play advertisement for them after paying. The other reason is, most of the time it doesn't play song, it just rings as usual tring...tring...I set caller tune to my mobile at home most of the time I don't hear caller tune though we have sufficient balance in that mobile. Yes, for prepaid mobile, you might know that for activating the tune you should have minimum balance of Rs 50, but might not know that you should have a minimum balance of Rs 50 to play the caller tune. Once your balance comes comes below Rs 50, the caller tune will not be heared. Thats what the customer care executive told me.

Yes, for deactivating too you need Rs 50 minimum balance. And it takes minimum 24 hrs to deactivate after sending sms.

To deactivate

To deactivate sms BT DACT to 56700. You will be charged Rs 2 for sms. If your message fails saying, "Message not sent, try again later", you may have less than Rs 50 in your account.

RList 3.0

Enhanced Features:
1.While booking RLs, the display window will show the latest RLs booked.
2.Change Password option under Tools menu provided for Administrator and Operator.
(The default user Administrator cannot change the password)
3.In Addressee and Address boxes, special characters are not allowed.
4.Shortcuts are given in the Main window to ease the Data Entry.

5.Improved user interface.

Important:

System Date format must be dd/mm/yyyy

In Printing preference, Paper size must be Letter

 

Existing users please download the new exe from the below link and replace RList 2.0 exe with this new exe. For Fresh instllation,first install RList 2.0 and then replace the RList.exe with this new exe.

 

 

Source: http://srfix.blogspot.in/

ട്രെയിന്‍ വിവരങ്ങള്‍ അറിയാന്‍ ഗൂഗിള്‍ മാപ് ആപ്ലിക്കേഷന്‍ ഒരുക്കി ഇന്ത്യന്‍ റെയില്‍വേ

നിങ്ങള്‍ക്ക്  ഏതു  ട്രെയിനിനെയും തല്‍സമയം ട്രാക്ക്‌ ചെയ്യാം

ട്രെയിന്‍ വിവരങ്ങള്‍ അറിയാന്‍ ഗൂഗിള്‍ മാപ് ആപ്ലിക്കേഷന്‍ ഒരുക്കി ഇന്ത്യന്‍ റെയില്‍വേ

ഇനി മുതല്‍ ട്രെയിന്‍ വിവരങ്ങള്‍ അറിയാന്‍ വേറെങ്ങും പോകേണ്ട. ഇന്ത്യന്‍ റെയില്‍വേ തന്നെ ഇതിനായി ഒരു ഗൂഗിള്‍ മാപ് ആപ്ലിക്കേഷന്‍ ഒരുക്കിയിരിക്കുകയാണ്. അതായതു ഇനി മുതല്‍ നിങ്ങള്‍ക്ക്  ഏതു  ട്രെയിനിനെയും തല്‍സമയം ട്രാക്ക്‌ ചെയ്യാം. ട്രയിന്‍ എവിടെയെത്തി, സ്റ്റോപ്പുകള്‍ ഏതൊക്കെ, ട്രെയിന്‍ സമയം- ഇക്കാര്യങ്ങളൊക്കെ ഇനി ഗൂഗിള്‍ മാപ് വഴിയുടെ അറിയാം. റെയില്‍ റഡാര്‍ എന്ന ഓണ്‍ലൈന്‍ അപ്ളിക്കേഷനിലൂടെയാണ് രാജ്യത്തെ ട്രെയിനുകളുടെ വിവരങ്ങള്‍ ഗൂഗിളില്‍ മാപില്‍ വ്യക്തമാക്കുന്നത്. ഇന്ത്യന്‍ റെയില്‍വേയുടെ വെബ്സൈറ്റായ ട്രെയിന്‍എന്‍ക്വയറി ഡോട്ട്കോം വഴി ഈ സേവനം ലഭ്യമാകും.
ഇന്റര്‍നെറ്റ്‌ വഴിയും തങ്ങളുടെ സെല്‍ഫോണ്‍ വഴിയും ഈ മാര്‍ഗ്ഗം പ്രയോജനപ്പെടുത്താം. ദിവസേന സര്‍വീസ് നടത്തുന്ന 6,500 ട്രെയിനുകളുടെ വിവരങ്ങള്‍ ഇപ്പോള്‍ ഈ സംവിധാനം വഴി ലഭ്യമാണ്. ബാക്കി ട്രെയിനുകളില്‍ ട്രാക്കിംഗ് സംവിധാനം ഏര്‍പ്പെടുത്തുന്നതിന് അനുസരിച്ച് സംവിധാനം ഉപയോഗിക്കാം. റെയില്‍യാത്രിയുടെ സഹകരണത്തോടെ റെയില്‍വേ പിഎസ് യു സെന്‍റര്‍ ആണ് റെയില്‍ റ‍ഡാര്‍ വികസിപ്പിച്ചത്. നിലവിലുള്ള പാസ്സഞ്ചര്‍ ട്രെയിനുകളെ ട്രാക്ക്‌ ചെയുഉന്ന സംവിധാനം ആണ് റെയില്‍യാത്രി.
വ്യത്യസ്ത കളറുകളില്‍ ആണ് ഓരോ വിവരങ്ങളും ലഭ്യമാവുക. അതായതു നീല നിറം സൂചിപ്പിക്കുന്നത് കൃത്യസമയത്ത് ഓടുന്ന ട്രെയിനുകള്‍ ആണ്. വൈകി ഓടുന്നവയെ കാണിക്കുവാന്‍ ചുവപ്പ് നിറവും. ആവശ്യമുള്ള ട്രെയിനിന്റെ അടയാളത്തില്‍ ക്ളിക്ക് ചെയ്താല്‍, ആ സമയത്ത് ട്രെയിന്‍ എവിടെയാണെന്നും റൂട്ടും സ്റോപ്പുകളും സമയവും മറ്റു വിവരങ്ങളും ഗൂഗിള്‍ മാപില്‍ കാണാന്‍ കഴിയും.
റെയില്‍വേയുടെ വെബ്സൈറ്റ് ആയ trainenquiry.com വഴി ഈ സംവിധാനം ഉപയോഗിക്കാം. ഒരു ട്രെയിനിന്റെ ഇപ്പോഴത്തെ സ്റ്റാറ്റസ് അറിയാന്‍ ആ ട്രെയിനിന്റെ പേരോ നമ്പറോ നല്‍കി മെയിന്‍ വെബ്‌സൈറ്റില്‍ സെര്‍ച്ച്‌ ചെയ്താല്‍ ആ ട്രെയിന്‍ ലേറ്റ് ആണോ അല്ലെങ്കില്‍ കറക്റ്റ്‌ ടൈമില്‍ ആണോ എന്നൊക്കെ അറിയാന്‍ സാധിക്കും.
അപ്പോള്‍ തുടങ്ങിക്കോളൂ, ഇനി മുതല്‍ സിസ്റ്റം ഹാങ്ങ്‌ ആണെന്ന വിചാരമേ വേണ്ട.

http://trainenquiry.com/

 

 

എഴുതിയത് ജാസിര്‍ ജവാസ്‌

പ്രൊഫഷണല്‍ ബ്ലോഗ്ഗര്‍, കോഴിക്കോട് സ്വദേശി,

Sources;http://boolokam.com/

HOLDING OF LIMITED DEPARTMENTAL COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR FILLING THE POSTS OF POSTMEN/MAIL GUARDS AND MULTI TASKING STAFF AS PER REVISED RECRUITMENT RULES.

DG (POSTS) No A-34012/01/2012-DE                                                        Dated 08^th October 2012

            I am directed to invite a kind reference to the SPB-I Section Circular No 37 -33/2009-SPB-I dated 11.07.2013 and No 44-14/2009-SPB-I dated 12.07.2012 wherein the amendment to RRs of 2010 in respect of Postmen/Mail Guard and Multi Tasking Staff respectively were circulated to all the concerned..

2          Further attention of the Circles is also invited to SBPB-I Section Circular No 45-14(ii)/2012-SBP-I dated 31.07.2012 wherein the pattern and syllabus for the above said two Examinations were communicated.  The Directorate vide letter No 45-14/2012-SPB-l dated 31.07.2012 issued detailed guidelines for conduct of the Examination to fill up the posts of Postmen/Mail guard and Multi Tasking Staff.

3. The SPB-I Section has ordered that the dates for holding the Examination will be communicated separately by DE Section.

4.         Accordingly, the Competent Authority has now ordered to conduct the Limited Departmental Competitive Examination for Postmen/Mail Guard and Multi Tasking Staff as per the following schedule.

Schedule of activity	Postmen/Mail Guard	Multi Tasking staff
Issue of notification	15.10.2012	15.10.2012
Last date for receipt of Application	02.11,2012	16.11.2012
Issue of Admit cards	05.01.2013	10.01.2013
Date of Admit cards	05.01.2013	27.01.2013
Date of Examination	20.01.2013	27.01.2013
Timing of Examination	10.00 AM to 11.30 AM	10.00 AM to 11.30 AM
Date of declaration of result	31.01.2013	10.02.2013

5.         The Competent Authority further ordered that the vacancies for the year 2013 may also be included while notifying the Examination and also notifying the vacancies.

6.         The Circles are requested to adhere to the pattern and syllabus and other instructions communicated by the SPB-I Section in the communication No 45.14/2012-SBP-I dated 31.07.2012 scrupulously.  It is further requested for issuing the notification and to follow the other schedule of activity strictly.  A copy of the Circular issued may be endorsed to Directorate for reference.

7.         This issues with the approval of the Competent Authority

WISH U ALL HAPPY WORLD POST DAY (9 OCTOBER)

Wish u all Happy World Post Day (9 October): World Post Day is celebrated each year on 9 October, the anniversary of the establishment of the Universal Postal Union (UPU) in 1874 in the Swiss capital, Bern. It was declared World Post Day by the UPU Congress held in Tokyo, Japan, in 1969. The purpose of World Post Day is to create awareness of the role of the postal sector in people’s and businesses’ everyday lives and its contribution to the social and economic development of countries. The celebration encourages member countries to undertake programme activities aimed at generating a broader awareness of their Post’s role and activities among the public and media on a national scale.

NATIONAL POSTAL WEEK COMMENCING FROM 9TH OCTOBER 2012
India Post is celebrating the National Postal Week starting w.e.f. 9^th Oct 2012. Let us too celebrate it in every manner and bring more pride and honour to our Department.

9^th Oct 2012: World Postal Day

11^th Oct 2012: Savings Bank Day

12^th Oct 2012: Mail Day

13^th Oct 2012: Philatelic Day

14^th Oct 2012: Business Development Day

15^th Oct 2012: PLI Day
Every year on 9th October, World Postal Day is being celebrated. As a member of Universal Postal Union, India Post is celebrating National Postal Week.

Savings Interest Calculator, TD & RD tables...

Click the links below to Download files..

Interest Calculator - from 01.04.2012 

TD Yearly Interest Ready reckoner table (Useful for BOs too)

RD Maturity Amount Ready reckoner table (Useful for BOs too)

Courtesy  : http://aipeup3cuddalore.blogspot.com/

MODEL QUESTIONS FOR IPO EXAM PAPER III

.(INDIAN EVIDENCE ACT 1872 QN 121-132)

121.    Evidence given by a dumb witness in the court by writing or signs shall be deemed to be

(a)       Documentary evidence                  (b)       Oral evidence

(c)        Neither A nor B                                (d)       None of these                       Ans:b

122.    Who can take identification parade?

(a)       Police officer                                     (b)       Magistrate

(c)        Any citizen                                        (d)       Any of these                         Ans:b

123.    Which of the following statement is correct?

(a)       If an attesting witness denies or does not recollect the execution of the  

            document, its execution may be proved by primary evidence

(b)       If an attesting witness denies or does not recollect the execution of the document, its execution may be proved by other evidence

(c)        Its execution may be proved by secondary evidence

(d)       All the above                                                                                                 Ans:b

124.    An Act, order or notification of the State Government may be proved by

(a)       Oral evidence

(b)       Journals publishing those documents
(c)        The records of the departments, certified by the heads of the dept  or by

            any document purporting to be printed by order of the Government

(d)       None of these                                                                                               Ans:c

125.    The proceedings of the legislature may be proved by

(a)       Oral evidence

(b)       Copy of such proceedings
(c)        The journals of those bodies or by published Acts or abstracts or by

            copies purporting to be printed by order of the Government concerned

(d)       None of these                                                                                               Ans:c

           

125.    A leading question, without the permission of the Court, may be asked in ____

(a)       Examination-in-Chief                                 (b)       At any time                           

(c)        Cross examination                                      (d)       None of these           Ans:c

  

126.    Point out the incorrect answer. Evidence may be

(a)       Direct and indirect                           (b)       Primary and secondary

(c)        Oral and documentary                    (d)       Procedural and substantive    Ans:d

127.    If a document is executed in several parts, each part is ___ of the document

(a)       Oral evidence                                  (b)       Primary evidence

(c)        Secondary evidence                       (d)       None of these                       Ans:b

128.    A copy compared with a copy of a letter made by a copying machine is ___ evidence of the contents of the letter

(a)       Documentary                                                (b)       Primary

(c)        Secondary                                         (d)       None of these.                      Ans:c

129.    Under the Evidence Act, fact means

(a)       Factum probandum             (b)       Factum probans

(c)        Both factum probandum and factum probans

(d)       None of the above.                                                                                      Ans:c

130.    Relevancy is

(a)       Question of law and can be raised at any time

(b)       Question of law but can be raised at the first opportunity

(c)        Question of law which can be waived

(d)       Question of procedure which can be waived.                                        Ans:a

131.    Which of the following documents are not admissible in evidence?

(a)       Documents improperly procured

(b)       Documents procured by illegal means

(c)        Both (a) & (b)

(d)       Neither (a) nor (b).                                                                                       Ans:d

132.    Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode, are relevant

(a)       Under section 6 of Evidence Act

(b)       Under section 7 of Evidence Act

(c)        Under section 8 of Evidence Act

(d)       Under section 9 of Evidence Act.                                                             Ans:b

(Prepared by AB Kantharaja, Mobile 08969822340, http://abkantharaja.blogspot.in)