Thursday, August 11, 2011
Online Income Tax Refund Tracking-FAQ
The Income Tax Department entertains queries for all assessees regarding the refunding of income tax through the Tax Information Network (TIN). The SBI has been appointed as the refund banker, which processes refunds and routes them to the assessees' bank accounts. If the assessee does not choose direct credit, a cheque is sent. This facility also helps track the status of the parcel that has been despatched by speed post. All refunds are handled by the Central Processing Centre (CPC) at Bangalore.
Visit following NSDL site for checking the status of your income tax refund.
Click here for online income tax refund tracking
You can track your refund details indicating your PAN, relevant assessment year and then clicking on 'submit'.
Processing
If the processing of the refund has not been completed by your assessing officer, or if there is no refund payable to you for that year, you will get a message saying so.
Refund details
If there is a refund, you will get details showing your refund reference number, the date of credit to your bank account or the date of despatch of the cheque by speed post, and the speed post reference number, if applicable
Tracking
You can go to India Speed Post Tracking website (click here to go to the site) and enter the speed post reference number. On submitting it, you will get a link called 'movement', which will show the status of your parcel.
You can submit your reference number and e-mail ID on the speed post tracker screen. You will receive an e-mail when your parcel has been received.
Points to note
Status check: You can check if your refund has been sent to the SBI, the refund banker, by logging into your e-filing account.
Payment mode: If you do not choose to receive the refund as an electronic credit, a cheque will be sent to the address provided in your income tax return.
Error notification: If there is an error in the refund or in case of any other query, the assessee can write to CPC Bangalore, quoting the refund reference number.
The following are frequently questions on Online Refund Tracking
QIn which cities the refund banker has been implemented ?
AThe refund banker facility is operational for non-corporate taxpayers assessed all over India.
QWho will send the refund to me?
AThe State Bank of India (SBI) is the refund banker to the Income Tax Department (ITD). The Cash Management Product department of SBI (CMP SBI) processes the refunds under the refund banker scheme. Details of refunds are forwarded to CMP SBI by the ITD. CMP SBI processes the refunds and sends the refund intimation to the taxpayer.
QHow will the refund be sent to me?
ARefunds are generated in two modes i.e., ECS and paper . If the taxpayer has selected mode of refund as ECS (direct credit in the bank account of the taxpayer) at the time of submission of income return the taxpayer's bank A/c (at least 10 digits ) and MICR code of bank branch and communication address are mandatory .
For taxpayers who have not opted for ECS refund will be disbursed by cheque or demand draft.
For generation of refund through paper cheque bank account no, correct address is mandatory.
QHow can I know the status of my refund?
AThe taxpayer can track the status of its refund from the Departmental Website www.incometaxindia.gov.in/ NSDL-TIN website www.tin-nsdl.com by clicking on "Status of Tax Refunds".
Refund status can be tracked by entering the PAN and Assessment Year for which refund is to be tracked.
Status of the refund can also be tracked by contacting the help desk of SBI's at toll free number: 18004259760 or email at: – itro@sbi.co.in.
QIf I have shifted my residence whom should I contact for updating my correspondence address for receipt of refund?
AThe tax payer should contact its Assessing Officer and inform about the change in the correspondence address.
QIf my bank account has been closed how will I get refund credit into the account?
AIn case of change or updation in the bank account number the taxpayer should provide the correct account number along with the MICR code where credit is to be effected to the Assessing Officer.
QWhom do I contact if the refund dispatched has not been received?
AThe tax payer can contact its local post office with the speed post ref no displayed at the NSDL-TIN website
QI have received the physical ECS refund advice and status of refund is "paid" on website of refund status track but my account has not been credited. Whom do I contact?
AIn case credit is not effected in the taxpayer account through ECS but the refund advice has been received by the taxpayer and the status shown is "paid"- in that case, the tax payer should contact his bank or SBI. You should contact SBI at the following address.
Cash Management Product (CMP)
State Bank of India
SBIFAST
31, Mahal Industrial Estate
Off Mahakali Caves Road
Andheri (East)
Mumbai – 400 093.
Phone Number: 18004259760 or email at itro@sbi.co.in
QI have neither received the physical ECS refund advice and status of refund is "unpaid" on website track. Whom do I contact?
AThe tax payer should provide the correct account number and MICR code to concerned Assessing officer, where credit is to be effected. The Assessing Officer will inform SBI to send a fresh refund cheque to the taxpayer.
QIf the date of encashing the refund cheque expires, whom should I contact?
AThe tax payer should contact their Assessing Officer as well as CMP SBI at the below address:
Cash Management Product (CMP)
State Bank of India
SBIFAST
31, Mahal Industrial Estate
Off Mahakali Caves Road
Andheri (East)
Mumbai – 400 093.
Phone Number: 18004259760 or email at itro@sbi.co.in
QHow do I rectify any mistakes in the name, assessment year, PAN, account number printed on the refund cheque delivered to me?
AIn case of any mistakes on the refund cheque delivered to you, the following should be done:
* Send the original refund cheque to CMP, State Bank of India at SBIFAST 31, Mahal Industrial Estate, Off Mahakali Caves Road, Andheri East, Mumbai – 400 093, Phone Number: 18004259760, along with a letter informing the mistakes on the refund cheque.
* Send a copy of the letter along with a copy of the refund cheque to your Assessing Officer.
* Retain a copy of the letter and refund cheque with you.
If somebody else's refund cheque / advice is delivered to me what should I do?
* You should contact SBI at the following address and return the refund cheque / advice.
Cash Management Product
State Bank of India
SBIFAST
31, Mahal Industrial Estate,
Off Mahakali Caves Road,
Andheri (East)
Mumbai – 400 093
Phone Number: 18004259760 or email at itro@sbi.co.in
QIs there any method available to know whether the refund record has been generated for the taxpayer?
AThe taxpayer can track the status of its refund from the NSDL-TIN website www.tin-nsdl.com by clicking on "Status of Tax Refunds".
Refund status can be tracked by entering the PAN and Assessment Year for which refund is to be tracked.
Status of the refund can also be tracked by contacting the help desk of SBI at 080-26599760.
QWhom do I contact for queries related to payment of refund which has been processed by ITD?
AFor any payment related query the taxpayer should contact SBI at 18004259760 or email at itro@sbi.co.in.
QWhom should I contact for refund related queries?
AFor any refund related query the tax payer should contact Aaykar Sampark Kendra at 0124 2438000 or email at refunds@incometaxindia.gov.in.
For refund related query/ or any modification in refund record relating to Return processed at CPC Bangalore, the CPC may be contacted by the taxpayer on 1-8004252229 or 080-43456700.
Source : http://www.gconnect.in/
Study Material for all type of Departmental Examination ( Saving Bank )
| Published by http://rmssa.blogspot.com/ |
| If the depositor of Sr Citizen account is obtain Rs 10000/- as deposit in a financial year then what is the rate of TDS to be charged If the depositor is resident of |
| If in any case two SCSS accounts are found opened in the name of same depositor in same deposit office in one calendar month then what is the further corrective action to be taken from department . The second account opened should be amalgamated with the first account subject to other terms and conditions of the scheme |
| What subjects are mentioned in Rule 36 and Rule 37 of POSB Manual Vol-I Various means for proper identification when a signature of depositor differs with the signature on record |
| What is the time limit for issuing certificate for TDS in respect of commission paid to agents for SCSS ? For SCSS commission paid to agents : within a week after the expiry of two months from the month in which tax is deducted or consolidated TDS certificate for the whole financial year may be issued within one month of the end of the financial year on request from the payee. |
| What is meant by TAN Tax Deduction account number |
| When a pensioner submit an application to c convert their existing pension account into joint account then what document is specially verified by Postmaster? Verify the name of joint holder (spouse) mentioned in revised SB-3 with that of PPO |
| What is the criteria for receipt a cheque for opening a PPF account ? Account will be opened only after the cheque/draft has been realized |
| Is it possible to open a RD account by NRI ? No |
| A blind/visually-impaired person can also open a joint account with a second blind/visually impaired or non-blind/visually impaired person as per normal procedure. The above said statement is True |
| The Public Provident Fund Act -------------- and Post Office Monthly Income Account Rules------------- 1968 and 1987 |
| As per provision of section 269 T of income Tax act , what is restricted in connection with repayment of deposit ? The repayment of deposit more than Rs 20000/- shall be made by account payee cheque |
| Prepared By |
Wednesday, August 10, 2011
Model Mutiple Choice Questions on Evidence Act
Model Mutiple Choice Questions on Evidence Act
1. Indian Evidence Act was drafted by
(a) Lord Macaulay
(b) Sir James F. Stephen
(c) Huxley
(d) Sir Henry Summer Maine.
2. The law of evidence consists of
(a) ordinary rules of reasoning
(b) legal rules of evidence
(c) rules of logic
(d) all the above.
3. Relevancy and admissibility under the Indian Evidence Act are
(a) synonymous
(b) co-extensive
(c) neither synonymous nor co-extensive
(d) synonymous & co-extensive both.
4. 'Self-regarding' statements
(a) can be self-serving statements
(b) can be self-harming statements
(c) can be self-serving or self-harming
(d) none of the above.
5. What is correct as regards the admissibility of self-regarding statements
(a) self-harming statement is admissible but a self-serving statement is not generally admissible
(b) self-serving statement is admissible but a self-harming statement is not generally admissible
(c) self-serving and self-harming statements both are generally admissible
(d) self-serving and self-harming statements both are generally inadmissible.
6. Under the law of evidence, as a general rule
(a) opinion on a matter of fact is relevant but not on a matter of law
(b) opinion on a matter of law is relevant but not on a matter of fact
(c) opinion on a matter of fact and law both are relevant
(d) opinion whether on a matter of fact or law, is irrelevant.
7. Indian Evidence Act applies to
(a) proceedings before tribunals
(b) proceedings before the arbitrator
(c) judicial proceedings in courts
(d) all the above.
8. Law of evidence is
(a) lex tallienis
(b) lex fori
(c) lex loci solutionis
(d) lex situs.
9. Law of evidence is
(a) a substantive law
(b) an adjective law
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
10. Facts can be
(a) physical facts
(b) psychological facts
(c) physical as well as psychological facts
(d) only physical facts & not psychological facts.
11. Under the Evidence Act, fact means
(a) factum probandum
(b) factum probans
(c) both factum probandum and factum probans
(d) none of the above.
12. Fact in issue means
(a) fact, existence or non-existence of which is admitted by the parties
(b) fact, existence or non-existence of which is disputed by the parties
(c) fact existence or non-existence of which is not disputed by the parties
(d) all the above.
13. Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means & includes
(a) ocular evidence
(b) documentary evidence
(c) ocular and documentary evidence both
(d) ocular evidence based on documents only.
14. Propositions under Evidence Act are
I. Affidavit is an evidence.
II. Everything produced before the court for inspection is evidence.
III. Anything of which judicial notice can be taken is evidence.
IV. Written statement of an accused is evidence. Which of the following is true in respect of the aforesaid propositions
(a) I, II, III & IV all are correct
(b) I, II & III are correct but IV is incorrect
(c) I, II & IV are correct but III is incorrect
(d) I, II & IV are incorrect but III is correct
(e) I & II are correct but III & IV are incorrect
(f) I is incorrect but II, III & IV are correct.
15. Proof of a fact depends on
(a) accuracy of the statement and not upon the probability of its existence
(b) not upon the accuracy of the statement but upon the probability of its existence
(c) artificial probative value assigned to a fact
(d) rigid mathematical demonstration.
16. Standard of proof in
(a) civil and criminal cases is the same
(b) criminal cases is much more higher than in civil cases
(c) criminal case is lower than in civil cases
(d) either (a) or (c) are correct
17. Presumptions under the law of evidence are
(a) presumption of facts
(b) presumptions of law
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) only (b) & not (a).
18. Propositions under Evidence Act are
I. Presumptions of facts are always rebuttable
II. Presumption of facts can be either rebuttable or irrebuttable
III. Presumption of law are always irrebuttable
IV. Presumption of law can be either rebuttable or irrebuttable.
Which is true of the aforesaid propositions
(a) I & III are correct but II & IV are incorrect
(b) I & IV are correct but II & III are incorrect
(c) II & III are correct but I & IV are incorrect.
(d) II & IV are correct but I & III are incorrect.
19. Under the law of evidence, the relevant fact
(a) must be legally relevant
(b) must be logically relevant
(c) must be legally & logically relevant
(d) must be legally & logically relevant and admissible.
20. Relevancy is
(a) question of law and can be raised at any time
(b) question of law but can be raised at the first opportunity
(c) question of law which can be waived
(d) question of procedure which can be waived.
21. Question of mode of proof is
(a) a question of law which can be raised at any time
(b) a question of procedure but has to be raised at the first opportunity and stands waived if not raised at the first opportunity
(c) a question of procedure & can be raised at any time
(d) a mixed question of law & fact.
(a) Lord Macaulay
(b) Sir James F. Stephen
(c) Huxley
(d) Sir Henry Summer Maine.
2. The law of evidence consists of
(a) ordinary rules of reasoning
(b) legal rules of evidence
(c) rules of logic
(d) all the above.
3. Relevancy and admissibility under the Indian Evidence Act are
(a) synonymous
(b) co-extensive
(c) neither synonymous nor co-extensive
(d) synonymous & co-extensive both.
4. 'Self-regarding' statements
(a) can be self-serving statements
(b) can be self-harming statements
(c) can be self-serving or self-harming
(d) none of the above.
5. What is correct as regards the admissibility of self-regarding statements
(a) self-harming statement is admissible but a self-serving statement is not generally admissible
(b) self-serving statement is admissible but a self-harming statement is not generally admissible
(c) self-serving and self-harming statements both are generally admissible
(d) self-serving and self-harming statements both are generally inadmissible.
6. Under the law of evidence, as a general rule
(a) opinion on a matter of fact is relevant but not on a matter of law
(b) opinion on a matter of law is relevant but not on a matter of fact
(c) opinion on a matter of fact and law both are relevant
(d) opinion whether on a matter of fact or law, is irrelevant.
7. Indian Evidence Act applies to
(a) proceedings before tribunals
(b) proceedings before the arbitrator
(c) judicial proceedings in courts
(d) all the above.
8. Law of evidence is
(a) lex tallienis
(b) lex fori
(c) lex loci solutionis
(d) lex situs.
9. Law of evidence is
(a) a substantive law
(b) an adjective law
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
10. Facts can be
(a) physical facts
(b) psychological facts
(c) physical as well as psychological facts
(d) only physical facts & not psychological facts.
11. Under the Evidence Act, fact means
(a) factum probandum
(b) factum probans
(c) both factum probandum and factum probans
(d) none of the above.
12. Fact in issue means
(a) fact, existence or non-existence of which is admitted by the parties
(b) fact, existence or non-existence of which is disputed by the parties
(c) fact existence or non-existence of which is not disputed by the parties
(d) all the above.
13. Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means & includes
(a) ocular evidence
(b) documentary evidence
(c) ocular and documentary evidence both
(d) ocular evidence based on documents only.
14. Propositions under Evidence Act are
I. Affidavit is an evidence.
II. Everything produced before the court for inspection is evidence.
III. Anything of which judicial notice can be taken is evidence.
IV. Written statement of an accused is evidence. Which of the following is true in respect of the aforesaid propositions
(a) I, II, III & IV all are correct
(b) I, II & III are correct but IV is incorrect
(c) I, II & IV are correct but III is incorrect
(d) I, II & IV are incorrect but III is correct
(e) I & II are correct but III & IV are incorrect
(f) I is incorrect but II, III & IV are correct.
15. Proof of a fact depends on
(a) accuracy of the statement and not upon the probability of its existence
(b) not upon the accuracy of the statement but upon the probability of its existence
(c) artificial probative value assigned to a fact
(d) rigid mathematical demonstration.
16. Standard of proof in
(a) civil and criminal cases is the same
(b) criminal cases is much more higher than in civil cases
(c) criminal case is lower than in civil cases
(d) either (a) or (c) are correct
17. Presumptions under the law of evidence are
(a) presumption of facts
(b) presumptions of law
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) only (b) & not (a).
18. Propositions under Evidence Act are
I. Presumptions of facts are always rebuttable
II. Presumption of facts can be either rebuttable or irrebuttable
III. Presumption of law are always irrebuttable
IV. Presumption of law can be either rebuttable or irrebuttable.
Which is true of the aforesaid propositions
(a) I & III are correct but II & IV are incorrect
(b) I & IV are correct but II & III are incorrect
(c) II & III are correct but I & IV are incorrect.
(d) II & IV are correct but I & III are incorrect.
19. Under the law of evidence, the relevant fact
(a) must be legally relevant
(b) must be logically relevant
(c) must be legally & logically relevant
(d) must be legally & logically relevant and admissible.
20. Relevancy is
(a) question of law and can be raised at any time
(b) question of law but can be raised at the first opportunity
(c) question of law which can be waived
(d) question of procedure which can be waived.
21. Question of mode of proof is
(a) a question of law which can be raised at any time
(b) a question of procedure but has to be raised at the first opportunity and stands waived if not raised at the first opportunity
(c) a question of procedure & can be raised at any time
(d) a mixed question of law & fact.
22. Which of the following documents are not admissible in evidence
(a) documents improperly procured
(b) documents procured by illegal means
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
23. The facts which form part of the same transaction are relevant
(a) under section 5 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 6 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 7 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 8 of Evidence Act.
(a) documents improperly procured
(b) documents procured by illegal means
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
23. The facts which form part of the same transaction are relevant
(a) under section 5 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 6 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 7 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 8 of Evidence Act.
24. A fact forming part of the same transaction is relevant under section 6 of Evidence Act
(a) if it is in issue and have occurred at the same time & place
(b) if it is in issue and may have occurred at different times & places
(c) though not in issue and may have occurred at the same time & place or at different times & places
(d) though not in issue, must have occurred at the same time & place.
25. Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode, are relevant
(a) under section 6 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 7 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 8 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 9 of Evidence Act.
26. Motives of preparation and conduct are I relevant
(a) under section 6 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 7 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 8 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 9 of Evidence Act.
27. Under section 8 of Evidence Act
(a) motive is relevant
(b) preparation is relevant
(c) conduct is relevant
(d) all the above.
28. For conduct to be relevant under section 8 of Evidence Act, it
(a) must be previous
(b) must be subsequent
(c) may be either previous or subsequent
(d) only subsequent & not previous.
29. Facts which are necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts of place, name, date, relationship & identity of parties are relevant
(a) under section 8 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 9 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 10 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 11 of Evidence Act.
30. Under section 9 of Evidence Act
(a) the identification parades of suspects are relevant
(b) the identification parades of chattels are relevant
(c) both (a) & (b) are relevant
(d) only (a) & not (b) is relevant.
(a) if it is in issue and have occurred at the same time & place
(b) if it is in issue and may have occurred at different times & places
(c) though not in issue and may have occurred at the same time & place or at different times & places
(d) though not in issue, must have occurred at the same time & place.
25. Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode, are relevant
(a) under section 6 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 7 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 8 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 9 of Evidence Act.
26. Motives of preparation and conduct are I relevant
(a) under section 6 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 7 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 8 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 9 of Evidence Act.
27. Under section 8 of Evidence Act
(a) motive is relevant
(b) preparation is relevant
(c) conduct is relevant
(d) all the above.
28. For conduct to be relevant under section 8 of Evidence Act, it
(a) must be previous
(b) must be subsequent
(c) may be either previous or subsequent
(d) only subsequent & not previous.
29. Facts which are necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts of place, name, date, relationship & identity of parties are relevant
(a) under section 8 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 9 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 10 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 11 of Evidence Act.
30. Under section 9 of Evidence Act
(a) the identification parades of suspects are relevant
(b) the identification parades of chattels are relevant
(c) both (a) & (b) are relevant
(d) only (a) & not (b) is relevant.
31. Identification of a suspect by photo is
(a) admissible in evidence
(b) not admissible in evidence
(c) section 9 of Evidence Act excludes identification by photo
(d) section 8 of Evidence Act excludes identification by photo.
32. Things said or done by a conspirator in reference to the common design is relevant
(a) under section 12 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 6 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 10 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 8 of Evidence Act.
33. A confession made by a conspirator involving other members is relevant against the co-conspirator jointly tried with him and is admissible
(a) under section 8 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 10 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 30 of Evidence Act
(d) both (b) & (c).
34. Alibi is governed by
(a) section 6 of Evidence Act
(b) section 8 of Evidence Act
(c) section 15 of Evidence Act
(d) section 11 of Evidence Act.
35. Transaction and instances relating to a right or custom are relevant
(a) under section 6 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 8 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 10 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 13 of Evidence Act.
36. Section 13 of Evidence Act applies to
(a) corporal rights
(b) incorporal rights
(c) both corporal and incorporal rights
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
37. Section 13 of Evidence Act
(a) is confined to public rights & does not cover private rights
(b) is not confined to public rights and covers private rights also
(c) is confined to private rights and does not cover public rights
(d) either (a) or (c) is correct.
38. Mode of proof of a custom is contained in
(a) admissible in evidence
(b) not admissible in evidence
(c) section 9 of Evidence Act excludes identification by photo
(d) section 8 of Evidence Act excludes identification by photo.
32. Things said or done by a conspirator in reference to the common design is relevant
(a) under section 12 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 6 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 10 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 8 of Evidence Act.
33. A confession made by a conspirator involving other members is relevant against the co-conspirator jointly tried with him and is admissible
(a) under section 8 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 10 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 30 of Evidence Act
(d) both (b) & (c).
34. Alibi is governed by
(a) section 6 of Evidence Act
(b) section 8 of Evidence Act
(c) section 15 of Evidence Act
(d) section 11 of Evidence Act.
35. Transaction and instances relating to a right or custom are relevant
(a) under section 6 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 8 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 10 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 13 of Evidence Act.
36. Section 13 of Evidence Act applies to
(a) corporal rights
(b) incorporal rights
(c) both corporal and incorporal rights
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
37. Section 13 of Evidence Act
(a) is confined to public rights & does not cover private rights
(b) is not confined to public rights and covers private rights also
(c) is confined to private rights and does not cover public rights
(d) either (a) or (c) is correct.
(a) section 32(4) of Evidence Act
(b) section 32(7) of Evidence Act
(c) section 48 of Evidence Act
(d) all the above.
39. Section 14 of Evidence Act makes relevant the facts which show the existence of
(a) any state of mind
(b) any state of body or bodily feeling
(c) either state of mind or of body or bodily feeling
(d) a particular state of mind and a state of body.
40. Under section 14 of Evidence Act - Explanation I
(a) evidence of general disposition, habit or tendencies is inadmissible
(b) evidence having a distinct and immediate reference to the particular matter in question is admissible
(c) both (a) & (b) are correct
(d) both (a) & (b) are incorrect.
41. Previous conviction of a person is relevant under
(a) explanation I to section 14 of Evidence Act
(b) explanation II to section 14 of Evidence Act
(c) explanation III to section 14 of Evidence Act
(d) explanation IV to section 14 of Evidence Act.
Answers for the above
1- b , 2- b, 3- c, 4-c, 5-a, 6-d, 7-c, 8-b, 9-b, 10-c, 11-c, 12-b, 13-c, 14-d, 15-b, 16-b, 17-c, 18-b, 19-a, 20-a, 21-b, 22-d, 23-b, 24-c, 25-b, 26-c, 27-d, 28-c, 29-b, 30-c, 31-a, 32-c, 33-c, 34-d, 35-d, 36-c, 37-b, 38-d, 39-c, 40-c, 41-b
1- b , 2- b, 3- c, 4-c, 5-a, 6-d, 7-c, 8-b, 9-b, 10-c, 11-c, 12-b, 13-c, 14-d, 15-b, 16-b, 17-c, 18-b, 19-a, 20-a, 21-b, 22-d, 23-b, 24-c, 25-b, 26-c, 27-d, 28-c, 29-b, 30-c, 31-a, 32-c, 33-c, 34-d, 35-d, 36-c, 37-b, 38-d, 39-c, 40-c, 41-b
Courtesy http://akulapraveen.blogspot.com/ ( Praveen Kumar )
Multiple Choice Question with Answer ( Evidence Act & Judicial )
(100 Questions with Answers)
(a) Lord Macaulay (b) Sir James F. Stephen
(c) Huxley (d) Sir Henry Summer Maine.
2. The law of evidence consists of
(a) ordinary rules of reasoning (b) legal rules of evidence
(c) rules of logic (d) all the above.
3. Relevancy and admissibility under the Indian Evidence Act are
(a) synonymous
(b) co-extensive
(c) neither synonymous nor co-extensive
(d) synonymous & co-extensive both.
4. 'Self-regarding' statements
(a) can be self-serving statements
(b) can be self-harming statements
(c) can be self-serving or self-harming
(d) none of the above.
5. What is correct as regards the admissibility of self-regarding statements
(a) self-harming statement is admissible but a self-serving statement is not generally admissible
(b) self-serving statement is admissible but a self-harming statement is not generally admissible
(c) self-serving and self-harming statements both are generally admissible
(d) self-serving and self-harming statements both are generally inadmissible.
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For every Computer User (CARPAL TUNNEL Syndrome )
For everyone who works daily on a computer. The mistakes daily mouse and keyboard usage will result in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome! Use the mouse and keyboard correctly. View below for the surgery of a patient suffering from Carpal Tunnel Syndrome followed by the RIGHT TECHNIQUES for usage......
Meghdoot 7 : Point of Sale login error after upgradation
In some offices we are getting an error while login in to Point of Sale after upgradation of Meghdoot7.The error message is as shown
[Microsoft ][ODBC SQL SERVER DRIVER][SQL SERVER] Incorrect Syntax near '='
Solution:Please tick on Barcode on Inland Registered articles in the following option of Point of Sale Supervisor before upgradation.
My Office-->Environment.
If you are forgot to tick this before upgradation install old version of Point of Sale and tick the said entry and switch to new version.
Courtesy : http://doputtur.blogspot.com/
[Microsoft ][ODBC SQL SERVER DRIVER][SQL SERVER] Incorrect Syntax near '='
Solution:Please tick on Barcode on Inland Registered articles in the following option of Point of Sale Supervisor before upgradation.
My Office-->Environment.
If you are forgot to tick this before upgradation install old version of Point of Sale and tick the said entry and switch to new version.
Courtesy : http://doputtur.blogspot.com/
Fresh empanelment of Private under CGHS
Fresh empanelment of private under CGHS. BENGALURU,CHANDIGARH, CHENNAI, HYDERABAD. JABALPUR. KANPUR, KOLKA TA AND MUMBAI
No:S.110011/23/2009-CGHS D.II/Hospital Cell (Part IX)
OFFICE MEMORANDUM
Subject: Fresh empanelment of private under CGHS. BENGALURU,CHANDIGARH, CHENNAI, HYDERABAD. JABALPUR. KANPUR, KOLKA TA AND MUMBAI
The undersigned is directed to state that CGHS had initiated action for empanelment of private hospitals under CGHS, under Continuous Empanelment Scheme, which was notified vide Office Memorandum of even number dated 8th December, 2010.
2. The undersigned is directed to enclose a further list of hospitals. under the categories mentioned in the document, that have conveyed their acceptance of the CGHS rates in various cities announced and placed on CGHS website and have signed the Memorandum of Agreement with CGHS and have also furnished the appropriate performance bank guarantee. These hospitals are also taken as included in the list of approved hospitals for empanelment under CGHS. Bengaluru, Chandigarh, Chennai, Hyderabad, Jabalpur, Kanpur, Kolkata and Mumbai.
3. It has now been decided that in the list of hospitals enclosed, which have been now approved under the fresh empanelment procedure, and have now signed the fresh Memorandum of Agreement and submitted the appropriate performance guarantee will be eligible to treat CGHS beneficiaries at revised rates with effect from the date of issue of letter.
Government of India
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Department of Health & Family Welfare
Nirman Bhawan, New Delhi 110 108
No:S.110011/23/2009-CGHS D.II/Hospital Cell (Part IX)
Dated, the 27th July, 2011
OFFICE MEMORANDUM
Subject: Fresh empanelment of private under CGHS. BENGALURU,CHANDIGARH, CHENNAI, HYDERABAD. JABALPUR. KANPUR, KOLKA TA AND MUMBAI
The undersigned is directed to state that CGHS had initiated action for empanelment of private hospitals under CGHS, under Continuous Empanelment Scheme, which was notified vide Office Memorandum of even number dated 8th December, 2010.
2. The undersigned is directed to enclose a further list of hospitals. under the categories mentioned in the document, that have conveyed their acceptance of the CGHS rates in various cities announced and placed on CGHS website and have signed the Memorandum of Agreement with CGHS and have also furnished the appropriate performance bank guarantee. These hospitals are also taken as included in the list of approved hospitals for empanelment under CGHS. Bengaluru, Chandigarh, Chennai, Hyderabad, Jabalpur, Kanpur, Kolkata and Mumbai.
3. It has now been decided that in the list of hospitals enclosed, which have been now approved under the fresh empanelment procedure, and have now signed the fresh Memorandum of Agreement and submitted the appropriate performance guarantee will be eligible to treat CGHS beneficiaries at revised rates with effect from the date of issue of letter.
A copy of this Office Memorandum and CGHS rates for different cities are available at website http://msotransparent.nic.in/cghsnew/index.asp
INDIA POST WINS TODAY'S TRAVELLER AWARD FOR BEST CUSTOMER SERVICE ORGANIZATION 2011
GILL INDIA COMMUNICATIONS
PRIVATE LIMITED
Today's traveller
Ms. Radhika Doraiswamy
Secretary
Department of Posts, Govt. of India
Dak Shawan, Sansad Marg
New Delhi - 110001
August 4, 2011
Sub: India Post wins Today's Traveller Award for Best Customer Service Organization 2011
Dear Ms. Doraiswamy,
Today's Traveller, the premier business & leisure travel magazine, takes greatpleasure in inviting you to its 14th Anniversary celebrations on 23rd August 2011 Tomark this milestone, a special coffee-table book - Today's Traveller- In Pursuit ofExcellence will be released at a launch event.
As part of this august event, the fifth edition of the Today's Traveller Awards to recognise and honour outstanding performers in the corporate, travel and tourism sector will be distributed.
We are glad to inform you that India Post has been awarded the Today's Traveller Award for Best Customer Service Organization 2011.
Hon'ble Minister for Tourism Mr. Subodh Kant Sahai has very graciously consented to honour the event and give away the awards.
We would appreciate it greatly if you would grace the event and receive the award personally. We await your confirmation.
The ceremony will be held at The Taj Palace Hotel, Sardar Patel Marg, New Delhi on Tuesday, the 23rd August 2011 at 6.00 pm. Detailed programme will follow.
With best regards,
Kamal Gill (Sd/-)
Executive Editor & Managing Director
Gill India Communications Pvt Ltd
M: +91 9899553300
www.miceplannerworld.com
www.gicpl.co.in
Courtesy : http://nfpe.blogspot.com/
How to Track your Income Tax Refund onlin
The Income Tax Department entertains queries for all assessees regarding the refunding of income tax through the Tax Information Network (TIN). The SBI has been appointed as the refund banker, which processes refunds and routes them to the assessees’ bank accounts. If the assessee does not choose direct credit, a cheque is sent. This facility also helps track the status of the parcel that has been despatched by speed post. All refunds are handled by the Central Processing Centre (CPC) at Bangalore. Visit https://tin.tin.nsdl.com/oltas/refundstatuslogin.html for checking the status of your income tax refund. You can do so by indicating your PAN, relevant assessment year and then clicking on ‘submit’.
Processing
If the processing of the refund has not been completed by your assessing officer, or if there is no refund payable to you for that year, you will get a message saying so.
Refund details
If there is a refund, you will get details showing your refund reference number, the date of credit to your bank account or the date of despatch of the cheque by speed post, and the speed post reference number, if applicable
Tracking
You can go to http://services.ptcmysore.gov.in/speednettracking/ and enter the speed post reference number. On submitting it, you will get a link called ‘movement’, which will show the status of your parcel.
E-mail
You can submit your reference number and e-mail ID on the speed post tracker screen. You will receive an e-mail when your parcel has been received.
Points to note
Status check: You can check if your refund has been sent to the SBI, the refund banker, by logging into your e-filing account.
Payment mode: Refunds are being sent in following two modes:
1. RTGS / NECS: To enable credit of refund directly to the bank account, Taxpayer’s Bank A/c (at least 10 digits), MICR code of bank branch and correct communication address is mandatory.
2. Paper Cheque: Bank Account No, Correct address is mandatory.
Error notification: If there is an error in the refund or in case of any other query, the assessee can write to CPC Bangalore, quoting the refund reference numberSource : http://tkbsen.blogspot.com/
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