സ്ത്രീകള്‍ എങ്ങിനെ വസ്ത്രം ധരിക്കണം എന്ന് പുരുഷന്‍ നിഷ്ക്കര്‍ഷിക്കുന്നത് ശരിയോ? അല്ലെങ്കില്‍ തിരിച്ചും?

Tuesday, August 02, 2011

M.C Questions on Cr.P.C for IPO Exam


1.The object of investigation is
(a) To arrest the accused (b) To punish the accused (c) To collect evidence against the accused (d) None of these

2.Which of the following offence was made non bailable by the Cr.P.C. Amendment Act 2005?
(a) 325 (b) 353 (c) 328 (d) 331

3.Which one of the following proceedings is known as judicial proceeding?
(a) Investigation (b) Enquiry and Investigation
(c) Enquiry and Trial (d) Trial and Investigation

4.In a first information an offence is cognizable and other is non-cognizable. The whole case shall be deemed to be (a) Cognizable (b) Non-cognizable
(c) It is to be seen whether it is a Warrant case
(d) It is to be seen whether it is a summons case
5.In the Indian Constitution Criminal Procedure is included in the
(a) Concurrent list (b) Union list (c) State list (d) Either a. or b.


6.Which of the following section inserted as per the Cr.P.C. (Amendment) Act 2005?
(a) 105A (b) 166 A (c) 50 A (d) 433A

7.Offence under S. 324 is
(a) Compoundable (b) Non-Compoundable
(c) Compoundable with permission of court (d) Non of these

8.In which of the following Cases the Supreme court has held that the Magistrate has ample powers to direct the officer in charge of the concerned police station to hold a proper investigation and take all such necessary steps that may be necessary for ensuring a proper investigation including monitoring the same
(a) CBI Vs State of Rajasthan (b) . Sakiri Vasu Vs State of U.P
(c) Manjt Pal Singh Vs State of Punjab (d) . Ramachandran Vs Udaya Kumar
9.In computing the period limitation in a criminal case,
(a) The day from which such period is to be computed shall not be excluded.
(b) The day from which such period is to be computed shall be excluded.
(c) The day from which such period is to be computed shall either be excluded or include
(d) d. None of these.

10.A report made by a police officer in a case which discloses a commission of a non cognizable offence after investigation shall deemed to be
(a) Police report (b) Charge sheet (c) Complaint (d) Final report

11. All the proceedings for the collection of evidence conducted by a police officer under Cr.P.C. is called
(a) Inquiry (b) Local inspection (c) Investigation (d) Judicial proceeding

12. An investigation into an offence cannot be conducted by
(a) Magistrate (b) A person authorized by a magistrate other than a police officer
(c) Both a. and b. (d) None of these

13. Any proceedings in the course of which evidence is taken on oath is called
(a) Inquiry (b) Investigation (c) Sworn statement (d) Judicial proceedings

14. The Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 came into force on
(a) 1st April 1973 (b) 1st April 1974 (c) 1st June 1973 (d) 1st June 1974

15. In which of the following cases the Kerala High Court has held that Even if earlier investigation was conducted by local police, there is no bar to refer the matter for investigation by the CBI in an appropriate case by the High Court
(a) J.Prabhavathi Amma Vs State of Kerala (b) Father Jose Pithrikkayil Vs CBI
(c) Nandakumar Vs State of Kerala (d) Jomn Puthen Purakkal vs CBI

16. The provisions of Cr.P.C. 1973 other than those relating to Chapters 8, 9 and 10 shall not apply
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Nagaland (c) Tribal areas (d) B & C

17. Any act or omission made punishable by any law for the time being is called
(a) Wrong (b) Offence (c) Criminal case (d) Charge

18 Maximum sentence of fine C.J.M. can impose
(a) 25,000 (b) 50,000 (c) 10,000 (d) no limit

19.The maximum sentence of imprisonment a C.J.M. can impose
(a) 3 years (b) 7 years (c) 10 years (d) no limit

20.Power to arrest a person committing a non cognizable offence is given to a police officer on
(a) The permission of superior officer (b) On refusal to give name and residence
(c) The presence of a Magistrate (d) Cannot be arrested in any situation

21. A private person can arrest an accused as provided under section
(a) 41 (b) 42 (c) 43 (d) 44
22. Any police officer may arrest without warrant any person
(a) Who has been concerned in any cognizable offence
(b) Who has been proclaimed as an offender
(c) Who is reasonably suspected of being a deserter from any armed forces
(d) All the above

23. The categories of persons who can be arrested without a warrant is described in section
(a) 41 (b) 42 (c) 40 (d) 50

24. Under section 37 of Cr.P.C., every person is bound to assist a Magistrate or Police officer
(a) In the taking or preventing the escape of any other person who such Magistrate or police officer is authorized to arrest
(b) In the prevention or suppression of a breach of peace
(c) In the prevention of any injury to be committed to any railway.
(d) In all the above cases

25. Under section 39 of Cr.P.C. ever person aware of the commission of an offence punishable under _________ of the following sections of IPC.
(a) Sections 121 to 126 Cr.P.C. (b) Sections 143 to 148 Cr.P.
(c) c. 302 and 304 (d) all the above

26. Who is the competent authority to decide as to who is the successor-in-office of any additional or assistant sessions Judge
(a) Sessions Judge (b) High Court (c) District Magistrate (d) None of these

27.The powers of superior police officers are mentioned in section
(a) 2(h) (b) 36 (c) 156 (d) Police Act

28. Arrest by Magistrate is mentioned in section
(a) 43 (b) 44 (c) 45 (d) 46

29. The guidelines regarding the arrest of Judicial officers by the police where issued by the Supreme Court in
(a) Joginder Kumar Vs. State of Utter Pradesh
(b) M.
(c) Abraham Vs. State of Maharashtra (2003 (2) SCC 649) c.
(d) K. Basu Vs. State of West Bengal (AIR 1997 SC 610) d. Delhi Judicial Service Association Vs. State of Gujarat (AIR 1991 SC 2176)

30. The new chapter incorporated by the Criminal law (amendment) 2005.
(a) XXI A (b) XXIII A (c) XXII A (d) XXIV A

31. Members of Armed Forces cannot be arrested except after obtaining the consent of
(a) D.G.P. (b) Central Government (c) Chief of concerned Army Force (d) Magistrate

32. Who is given protection from arrest under 45 of Cr.P.C.
(a) President of India (b) Judicial Officers
(c) Members of Armed Forces (d) Members of Parliament

33. The judicial pronouncement which led to the incorporation of section 46(4) of Cr.P.C. by the amendment Act of 2005
(a) Joginder Kumar Vs. State of Utter Pradesh
(b) M.
(c) Abraham Vs. State of Maharashtra (2003 (2) SCC 649) c.
(d) K. Basu Vs. State of West Bengal (AIR 1997 SC 610) d. State of Maharashtra Vs. Christian Community Welfare of India

34. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that, even without the presence of a lady constable, police can arrest a female offender
(a) Joginder Kumar Vs. State of Utter Pradesh
(b) M.
(c) Abraham Vs. State of Maharashtra (2003 (2) SCC 649) c.
(d) K. Basu Vs. State of West Bengal (AIR 1997 SC 610) d. State of Maharashtra Vs. Christian Community Welfare of India

35. Section 265A deals with
(a) Summary trial (b) Plea bargaining (c) Identification of accused
(d) Medical examination of rape victim

36. The form of summons is mentioned in section
(a) 61 (b) 62 (c) 91 (d) 92

37.The section newly added in Chapter V (arrest of persons) by the Cr.P.C. Amendment Act 2005
(a) 46(4) (b) 50(A) (c) 53(A) (d) All the above
38.The procedure for arrest is described in section
(a) 46 (b) 50 (c) 51 (d) 57
39. Rejection of anticipatory bail application itself is not a ground for the immediate arrest of the accused and the arrest of persons in all cases is unnecessary. The Supreme Court gave the above preposition in
(a) Joginder Kumar Vs. State of Utter Pradesh
(b) Abraham Vs. State of Maharashtra (2003 (2) SCC 649) c.
(c) K. Basu Vs. State of West Bengal (AIR 1997 SC 610) d. Delhi Judicial Service Association Vs. State of Gujarat (AIR 1991 SC 2176)

40.In a case involving offence under section 304B, the period of remand under section 167(2) is
(a) 15 days (b) 60 days (c) 90 days (d) 180 days

41.The Kerala High Court has held the following proposition
section 159 does not confer any power to the magistrate to proceed to the place and conduct local investigation in
(a) Sukumaran Vs. State of Kerala (b) In Re Sister Abhaya (2006 (2) KLT 1001)
(c) Vijayan Vs. State of Kerala (d) Acharaparambil Pradeepan Vs. State of Kerala

42.An enquiry into the apparent cause of death is called
(a) Post mortem examination (b) Mahazar (c) Inquest (d) Investigation

43.Before accepting a Refer Report, court is bound to issue notice to
(a) Accused (b) First informant (2006 (2) KLT 588)
(c) Investigating officer (d) Prosecutor

44.Agreement entered into at Calcutta for a project to be carried at Calcutta, payments required to be made at Calcutta, cheques were issued from registered office at Ernakulam the court to having jurisdiction to quash the proceedings
(a) Magistrate Court Calcutta (b) Calcutta High Court (2006 (2) KLT 525)
(c) Kerala High Court (d) Both b. and c.

45.The procedure for inquest is mention in section
(a) 173 (b) 174 (c) 176 (d) 172

46. At the stage of 200 what is needed is
(a) Complainant has to adduce evidence (b) Examination of complainant by magistrate
(c) Chief examination of complainant only (d) None of these

47.The Bar under section 196 is against
(a) Registration of crime (b) Investigation by police
(c) Submission of report by police (d) Taking cognizance (2006 (3) KLT 830)
48. Plea bargaining introduced in India by
(a) The Amendment Act of 1980 (b) The Criminal Law Amendment Act 2005
(c) The Code of Criminal Procedure Amendment Act 2005 (d) Act 25 of 2005
49. Power under section 319 Cr.P.C. covers
(a) Post cognizance stage (2006 (1) KLT SN 60) (b) Pre cognizance stage
(c) Both a. and b. (d) None of these
50. Under which of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code police can arrest an accused without warrant? MP APO -2002
(a) Section 37 (b) Section 40 (c) Section 42 (d) Section 41
Courtesy : Praveen kumar http://akulapraveen.blogspot.com/

Current Affairs and GK for IPO exam ( Q 41 - 87 )




41. Pravasi Bhartiya Divas in 2011 was held at:
(a) Jaipur (b) New Delhi (c) Ujjain (d) Varanasi
Answer : b
42. 98th Indian Science Congress in January 2011 was held at:
(a) Chennai (b) Kharagpur (c) Kanpur (d) Delhi
Ans - a
43. Who of the following is the present Lokayukta of Karnataka:
(a) N Vittal (b) Santosh Hegde (c) Yashwant Sonawane(d) None of these
Answer:b
44. Georgia’s capital is to be shifted from Tbilisi to:
(a) Akhan (b) Yeren (c) Kutaisi (d) Chisinau
Ans-c
45. Which country topped the Terrorism Risk Index in 2010:
(a) Somalia b) Samoa (c) Jamaica (d) Iraq
Ans-a
46. Which district is going to be named after Indira Gandhi? Ans: a
(a) Medak (b) Rai Bareli (c) Chikmaglur (d) Bellary
47. Who received the Elis Island Medal of Honour in 2010?
(a) Dalai Lama (b) Zinedine Zidene
(c) Rao Anumlu (d) B K Varghese
Answer: c
48. Enam Securities is to be purchased by:
(a) Union Bank of India (b) BNP Paribas
(c) ANZ Grindlays (d) Axis Bank
Answer: d
49. Which famous personality bagged the Man of Peace Award in 2010?
(a) Roberto Baggio (b) Diegs Maradona
(c) Pope John Paul II (d) None of these
Answer: a
50. Who is the new National Security Advisor of United States?
(c) W Singham (b) Thomas Donilon
(a) Colin Powell (b) Larry Page
Ans-b
51. Who is the new president of UN General Assembly?
(a) Joseph Deiss (b) Hans Rasmus Sen
(c) Leon Panetta (d) None of these
Ans-a
52. Luka and Fire of Life is the latest book by:
(a) Arun Som (b) Salman Rushdie
(c) Vikram Seth (d) None of these
Ans-b
53. What is the name of India’s latest and Seventh Super Computer?
(a) Annapurna (b) Param
(c) Pinak (d) None of these
Ans-a
54. Tembli became the first village in India to get UID. In which state it is located?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Chattisgarh
(c) Maharashtra (d) None of these
Ans-c
55.Who has been declared the ‘Business Leader of the year’ in Economic Times Corporate Excellence Awards 2010?
(a) Aditya Puri (b) N Nrayanmurthy
(c) Azim Premji (d) Mukesh Ambani
Ans-a
56. What is the mascot of 2011 cricket world cup?
(a) Hoho (b) Cobe
(c) Stumpy (d) None of these
Ans-c
57. SAF (South Asian Federation) games in 2012 will be held at
(a) Kathmandu (b) Delhi
(c) Bangalore (d) None of these
Ans-b
58. Agni III was launched from which of the following places: Ans : a
(a) Wheeler Island (b) Sriharikota (c) Bikaner (d) None of these
59. Who of the following is the Chairperson of National Green Tribunal?
(a) Lokeshwar Singh Parata (b) Anil Pandey
(c) K Vijay Kumar (d) None of these
Answer-a;
60. Which Indian Company is slated to buy the English football club Blackburn?
(a) U B groups (b) RPG
(c) Videocon (d) Vicky
Answer : d
61. Who is the Union Minister of Corporate Affairs?
(a) Murali Deora (b) Jaipal Reddy
(c) C P Joshi (d) M S Gill
Answer: a
62. Who is the new President Elect of BCCI?
(a) Chirayu Amin (b) Jyotiraditya Schindia
(c) Shashank manohar (d) Jagmohan Dalmia
Answer: c
63. Karrar is the unmaned bomber aircraft of which country?
(a) Iran (b) Syria
(c) Israel (d) None of these
Answer:a
64. Who is the CMD of Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited?
(a) S K Jain (b) Harsh Marital
(c) Oskar Singh (d) None of these
Answer: a
65. Who is the Director of Intelligence Bureau?
(a) Rajeev Mathur (b) Nehchal Sandhu
(c) Saikat Dutta (d) None of these
Answer: b
66. Ramagundanar thermal power project is in which state?
a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala (d) Karnataka
Ans- a
67. Project Big Green has been initiated by which company?
(a) Microsoft (b) Apple
(c) Infosys (d) IBM
Answer:d
68. Vansadhara River dispute is between which states?
(a) Orissa and Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala and Tamil Nadu (d) None of these
Answer: a
69. Who is the Chairperson of National Housing Board?
(a) B N Kapoor (b) Mata Prasad
(c) R B Verma (d) None of these
Ans- c
70. Who is India’s permanent representative to United Nations? Ans; a
(a) Hardeep Singh Puri (b) M.K. Agnihotri
(c) Vijay Pasricha (d) None of these
71. Who is the principal scientific advisor to Government of India?
(a) R. Chidambaram (b) V.K. Saraswat
(c) T.K. Thomas (d) None of these
Ans - a
72. Who is the Chairman of Central Water Commission?
(a) Balraj Madhok (b) A.K. Bajaj
(c) Shivran Puri (d) None of these
Ans - b
73. Who is the Deputy National Security Advisor?
(a) Shiv Shankar Menon (b) M.K. Narayanan
(c) Shekhar Dutt (d) None of these
Answer: c
74. Aligarh Muslim University is going to set its new campus at:
(a) Saharanpur (b) Meerut
(c) Murshidabad (d) Azamgarh
Ans-c
75. Who is the new Chairperson of National Commission for Backward classes?
(a) M.N. Rao (b) T.K. Maken
(c) Ram Singh Senbar (d) None of these
Ans- a
76. Who is the Chairperson of 19th Law Commission?
(a) P.V. Reddy (b) A.K. Lakshmanan
(c) K.R. Kurup (d) None of these
Ans- a
77. Who is the Chairman of National Commission for Protection of Child Rights?
(a) Buta Singh (b) M.K. Kurup
(c) Shanta Sinha (d) Dheeraj Rohatgi
Answer: c
78. Mini Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas in October 2010 was held at:
(a) Cape Town (b) Durban
(c) Johannesburg (d) None of these
Answer: b
79. G-8 summit in June 2010 was held at:
(a) Ontario (b) Vancouver
(c) Huntsville (d) Quebec
Answer:-c
80. Who is the CEO of Twitter?
(a) Dick Costello (b) Jorma Olila (c) Allan Bolt (d) None of these
Ans-a
81. Which country topped the Global Peace Index Report in 2010? Ans : a
(a) New Zealand (b) Iceland (c) Denmark (d) Sweden
82. Who of the following is the recipient of Turner Prize 2010?
(a) Alex Rodriques (b) Sergie Bryan
(c) Susan Philipsz (d) None of these
Ans-c
83. Who is the Chairperson of Railway Board?
(a) Vivek Sahay (b) J P Batra
(c) D P Aggarwal (d) None of these
Ans-a
84. Who of the following is the recipient of Cervantes Prize 2010?
(a) John Stocker (b) Ana Maria
(c) C Andrew Stephen (d) None of these
Ans-b
85. Who founded the Telangana Praja Front in October 2010?
(a) G V Rao (b) K Chandrashekhar Rao
(c) N Srinivas (d) None of these
Ans-a
86. M. B. Shah Commission is related to:
(a) Illegal mining (b) Agricultural Statistics
(c) Microfinance Institutions (d) None of these
Ans-a
87. Who is the secretary General of Rajya Sabha?
(a) T.K. Vishwanathan (b) Vivek Agnihotri
(c) V.K. Gupta (d) None of these
Ans-b

Courtesy : Praveen kumar http://akulapraveen.blogspot.com/

Current Affairs and GK for IPO exam ( Q 1 - 40 )


1. Who authored the book ‘The Science of Bharat Natyam’?
(a) Saroja Vaidyanathan (b) Yamini Krishnamurthi ( c) J. Sushila (d) None of these
Answer a;
2.International Day for Disaster Reduction is observed on:
(a) 9th August (b) 13th October (c) 24th November (d) 11th December
Answer- b;
3. Tianhe 1A, the world’s fastest supercomputer is made by
(a) United States (b) Japan (c) China (d) None of these
Answer : c
4. Which is India’s first ever Pollution Control Warship?
(a) Samudra Prahari (b) Nischaya (c) Varuna (d) None of these
Answer: a
5. Who became India’s youngest grandmaster?
(a) Parimarjan Negi (b) Dronavali Harika (c) Praveen Thipse (d) S P Sethuraman
Answer: d
6. K C Kulich International Award is associated with:
(a) Medicine (b) Economics (c) Journalism (d) Sports
Answer: c
7. ‘Open’ is the autobiography of which sports personality?
(a) Adam Gilchrest b) Glenn Merges (c) Andre Agassiz (d) None of these
Ans-c
8. World Cup Football in 2022 is to be held at:
(a) Qatar (b) UK (c) Spain (d) France
Answer: a
9. Who is the first head of UN WOMEN?
(a) Laura Chinchilla (b) Julia Gillard (c) Mitchell blachettt (d) None of these
Answer: c
10.Which of the following committee is related to Corporatisation of Stock Exchanges?
(a) Bimal Jalan Committee (b) V Achuthan Committee (c) P M Nair Committee (d) None of these
Ans-a
11. Which is India’s newest stock exchange for currency derivatives?
(a) BSE (b) NSE (c) United Stock Exchange (USE) (d) None of these
Answer : c
12. Jeevan Reddy Committee is related to
(a)Illegal mining (b) Armed Forces Special Power Act (c) Environmental Impact Assessment (d) None of these
Ans-b
13. Which of the following scheme is related with social security for unorganised sector?
(a) Swabhiman (b) Sabla (c) Swavalamban (d) None of these
Ans-c
14. Polavaram Project is located in which state?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka
Answer: a
15. David Perlman Award is given in which field?
(a) Sports (b) Music (c) Photography (d) Journalism
Ans- d
16.Which of the following committee has redefined the definition of Slums?
(a) Pranab Sen Committee(b) Arjun Sen gupta committee (c) C Ibrahim Committee (d) None of these
Ans-a
17. Arrow-III is an anti missile system of
(a) France (b) Pakistan (c) Israel (d) UK
Ans-c
18. India’s first jail BPO is going to came up at:
(a) Bangalore (b) Pune (c) Chennai (d) Hyderabad
Answer: a
19.World’s first aviation university coming up at:
(a) Bangalore (b) Nice (c) Glasgow (d) Venice
Answer: a
20. Khoj lab has been launched by which group?
(a) Future Group (b) dell (c) IBM d) Times group
Answer: a
21. Which of the following became the first smoke Free State in India?
(a) Sikkim (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Uttarakhand (d) None of these
Ans-a
22. Lightest element:- Hydrogen
Only Metal liquid at room temperature:- Hg Mercury
Tungsten symbol –W
Tin –Sn
Element with maximum number of compounds –Carbon (due to catenation)
22. Which of the following became the Ist Asian Country to sign Free Trade Agreement with European Union?
(a) South Korea (b) China (c) India (d) None of these
Ans-a
23. The Emissary’ is the book authored by:
(a) Tarun Tejpal b) Vinod Mehta (c) Aniruddh Bahl (d) None of these
Ans-c
24. Who is the new PM of Netherlands?
(a) Mark Ruttea (b) Bill Carey (c) Thakshin Sinawatra (d) None of these
Ans-a
25. Who is the new PM of Kosovo?
(a) Hashim Taci (b) N K Name Krumoh (c) Jose Borosso d) None of these
Ans-a
26. Who is the chairman of National Democratic Front of Bodoland?
(a) Paresh Barna (b) Aravind Rajakhowa (c) Ranjan Daimary (d) None of these
Ans-c
27. With which of the following countries India has not signed civil nuclear agreement?
(a) Namibia (b) Sweden c) Mongolia (d) Argentina
Ans-b
28. Who is the PM of Sweden?
(a) Fredrick Rainfeldt (b) Silvio Berlusconi (c) Garry Wanders (d) None of these
Ans-a
29. APEC Summit in November 2010 was held at :
(a) Yokohama (b) Sydney (c) Singapore (d) Busan
Answer a;
30. Which public sector bank was the banking partner in Commonwealth Games 2010?
(a) Central Bank of India (b) State Bank of India (c) Bank of Baroda (d) None of these
Answer-a;
31. Who is the new vice chief of army staff?
(a) V.K. Singh (b) A.S. Lamba (c) C. Shekhawat (d) None of these
Answer : b
32. Who has become the vice president of ICC?
(a) Ehsaan Mani (b) John Mulford (c) Alan Isaac (d) Molcom Speed
Answer: c
33. Who is the Director General of National Investigation Agency ?
(a) R.V. Raju (b) Ved Marwah (c) K.F. Rustomji (d) Sharad Chandra Sinha
Answer: d
34. Who is the Director of National Security Guard?
(a) R.K. Medhekar (b) J.K Dutt (c) B.K. Banerjee (d) None of these
Answer: a
35. Who of the following Indian got the Australia Day achievement medal 2010?
(a) V.P. Unnikrishnan (b) Sandeep Pandey (c) Vandana Shiva (d) None of these
Answer: a
36. Which of the following country became the 187th member of IMF?
(a) Marshall Islands (b) Tuvalu (c) Fiji (d) None of these
Answer: b
37. India’s second National Institute of Design will come up at which of the following
(a) Amethi (b) Jorahat (c) Aizowl (d) Itanagar
Ans- b
38. Benghazi is a port of:
(a) Libya (b) Yemen (c) Egypt (d) None of these
Answer: a
39. Jakhol Sankri Hydro Electric Project has been commissioned at
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) J&K (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: a
40. ‘Home Boy’ is a novel written by
(a) H M Naqvi (b) H S Narula (c) Anand Sarkar d) Stephen Lipsett
Ans- a

Courtesy : Praveen kumar http://akulapraveen.blogspot.com/

M.C. Questions On Evidence Act for IPO exam

1. A voluntarily confession is admissible in evidence (CJS 2004)
(a) When made to a police officer (b) To Magistrate having competent jurisdiction
(c) To a village sarpanch with request to save him from police
(d) Where it leads to no discovery of facts and made to the police officer

2. The presumptions will vanish when
(a) The accused adduces evidence (b) The contrary is proved
(c) The accused entering into defence (d) None of these .

3. For proving execution of a registered will (CJS 2004)
(a) Be necessary to call at least two attesting witness
(b) Be necessary to call at least one attesting witness
(c) Not necessary to call any attesting witness
(d) Be necessary to call the registrar

4. Deepak accused of committing the offence of supplying arms, informs his lawyer Shweata, that he has committed the offence and wishes her to defend him. In these circumstances (DJS 08)
(a) Shweta is duty bound to inform the police
(b) Shweta is duty bound to inform the fact to the magistrate
(c) The communication is a privileged one and protected from disclosure
(d) The criminal court can, at the instance, compel Sweta to disclose the fact

5. The function of a court of justice is
(a) To ascertain the existence or non-existence of certain facts
(b) To apply the substantive law to ascertained facts
(c) Declare the rights and liability of parties (d) All the above

6. In relation to expressions defined in S. 3 of the Indian Evidence Act which of the following statement is not correct? (CJS 2004)
(a) Facts include not only physical facts but also psychological facts
(b) Court includes Arbitrators
(c) An inscription on a stone is a document
(d) A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disapproved


7.Evidere means
(a) to show (b) to show clearly (c) ascertain (d) signify

8. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has held that the investigating officer should be allowed to refer to the records of investigation
(a) State of Karnataka Vs. Yarappa Reddi (b) Mohammed Khalid Vs. State of West Bengal (c) Baburam Vs. State of U.P. (d) State of Rajasthan Vs. Omprakash

9.State of Maharashtra Vs Damu Gopinatah shinde (AIR 2000 SC 1691) explained the principle embodied in
(a) Dying Declaration (b) S.27 Recovery (c) Alibi (d) None of these.

10. Law of evidence is
(a) The lex situs
(b) The lex (leges) loci contractus (the law of the place when contract is entered into)
(c) The lex fori (the law of the place where the question arises)
(d) None of these

11.Oral testimony of a witness can be
(a) Wholly reliable (b) Wholly unreliable (c) Neither a. nor b. (d) Any of the above

12. Facts can be
(a) Psychological facts (b) Physical facts (c) Physical as well as psychological facts (d) Only b. and not a.
14. 114(b) presumption deals with
(a) possession of stolen properties
(b) evidence of accomplice
(c) judicial and official acts
(d) common course of business

15. Under S. 3 of the evidence Act, Fact in issue means
(a) Fact, existence or non-existence of which is not disputed by the parties
(b) Fact, existence or non-existence of which is disputed by the parties
(c) Fact, existence or non-existence of which is admitted by the parties
(d) All the above

16. Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means and includes
(a) Primary evidence (b) Ocular and documentary evidence or both
(c) Primary and circumstantial Evidence (d) Documentary evidence

17. Law of evidence is
(a) Substantive law (b) Adjective law (c) Procedural law (d) All the above

18.The Indian Evidence Act came into force on the territory of Goa on
(a) 15.08.1972 (b) 01.06.1964 (c) 01.08.1872 (d) 01.01.1964

19.When the recovery of weapon does not attract Sec.27 of Evidence Act, the conduct of the accused will constitute evidence under section
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10.

20. Admissions are (CJS 2004)
(a) Conclusive proof (b) May operate as estoppels,
(c) Always irrelevant (d) None of the above

21. Section 25 of Indian Evidence Act has no application in departmental proceedings. The statement is
(a) Fully correct (b) False (c) Partly correct (d) None of these

22. Indian Evidence Act is applicable to
(a) Judicial proceedings in courts (b) Proceedings before the arbitrator
(c) Proceedings before tribunals (d) All the above

23.The court may presume that a man who is in possession of stolen goods soon after theft is either a thief or has receive the goods knowing them to be stolen, unless he can account for his possession. This presumption is contained in section
(a) 114(a) (b) 114(b) (c) 114(c) (d) 114(d)

24.Something from which fact is issue are to be inferred is called
(a) Direct evidence (b) Circumstantial evidence
(c) Proof (d) None of these .

25.Unless non-access is proved, the presumption as to legitimacy of any child born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man is (CJS 2004)
(a) Rebuttable presumption of Law (b) Presumption of fact
(c) Mixed presumption of law and fact (d) Irrebuttable presumption of law

26. The instruments by which the court is convinced of a fact is called
(a) Document (b) Evidence (c) Proof (d) Witness
27.The power of comparison of handwriting of finger print under section 73 lies with
(a) Investigating officer (b) Court (c) Either a. or b. (d) None of these

28. An accused can discharge his burden
(a) By adducing defence evidence (b) Contradicting prosecution witnesses
(c) Relying on improbabilities of the prosecution case (d) Any of the above.

29. Which of the following sections give a presumption that judicial and official acts have been regularly performed?
(a) 114(c) (b) 114(d) (c) 114(e) (d) 114(f)

30.Statements made by the conspirators after they are arrested
(a) Are admissible under section 10 of Evidence Act (b) Not admissible
(c) Depends on the facts of the case (d) None of these

Courtesy : Praveen kumar